IF JESUS IS ALMIGHTY GOD... 1. After that why is "God main of Christ Morally AS Christ is main of man"? (1 Cor. 11:3)2. After that why does Scripture faithfully time Jesus as a separate out soul from God? (John 20:17; John 14:1; Dip 10:18; John 17:1-3; etc. In addition to in fantasy, 1 Cor. 11:3; Luke 22:69; etc.) 3. After that how can Jesus "pass on" a God? May possibly Almighty God pass on a God? (Mic. 5:4; Ps. 45:6, 7; 89:26; John 20:17; Rom. 15:6; 2 Cor. 1:3; Eph 1:3; Col 1:3; Dip 15:34; John 17:1-3; In addition to in fantasy, Rev. 1:6; 3:2, 12) 4. After that why does Scripture say he was" uneducated" and is "part of" Creation? (Col. 1:15)5. After that why does Rev. 3:14 say that Jesus is "the beginning of the idea of God"?6. After that why is he punishment to GOD, in the function of we're punishment to him? (1 Cor. 15:27, 28; Eph. 1:17)7. After that why does Micah 5:2 say that Jesus' Microbe was "from juvenile epoch"? 8. After that why does Jesus not know what God knows? (Matt. 24:36, Rev.1:1; Luke 8:45)9. After that why is Jesus equal punishment to God to the same extent he is as high as he thrust ever be? (1 Cor. 15:27, 28)10. After that why does Proverbs 8:22-31 clarify that the Messiah was Bent / Fashioned by God?11. After that why is he not powerful lots to punishment things to himself? (1 Cor. 15:27, Eph. 1:17, 22)12. After that why would he pass on to be "given" any power and authority? (Mt. 28:18; 11:27; Jn. 5:22; 17:2; 3:35; 2 Pet. 1:17)13. After that why did he pass on to" learn" anything? (Heb. 5:8; John 5:19; 8:28)14. After that why is interruption against him not as bad as interruption against the Saintly Spirit? (Mt. 12:31,32; Luke 12:10)15. After that why did Jesus provoke the "Close relative...the in simple terms true God"? (John 17:3)16. After that why did he need to be saved? (Heb. 5:7; John 12:27)17. After that why did he pass on to be "towering" to Conduct and Savior? (Acts 5:31)18. After that how might he be "towering" and "given" a innovative name than he had? (Phil. 2:9-11; Heb. 1:2-4)19. After that why did he pass on to be" given" life in himself? (John 5:25,26)20. After that how can the Close relative be high-class than he? (John 14:28)21. After that how might Jesus be tempted by Satan to the same extent God cannot be tempted with evil? (James 1:13)22. After that why did he glorify the Father? (John 4:22)23. After that why can he not do anything on his own? (John 5:19; 6:38)24. After that why would he pray to anybody? (Luke 22:44; John 17:1,2; Heb. 5:7)25. After that why do John 1:18 and 1 John 4:9 say that Jesus is God's "in simple terms BEGOTTEN Son"? ASV26. After that how can he be God's servant? (Acts 4:26,27,30)27. After that how might he build boldness from an angel? (Luke 22:43)28. After that how might he be a "mediator" amid "God" and man? (1 Tim. 2:5)29. After that how might he be "with" God "(ton theon)"? (John 1:1)30. After that how can he be God's image? (Col. 1:15; Heb. 1:3)31. After that why is he called the "workforce" ("dia") of idea and not the Originator (ek)? (1 Cor. 8:6; John 1:1-3; Prov. 8:30; Heb. 2:10; Col. 1:15,16)32. After that why did Jesus say GOD was "good" in a way that Jesus was not? (Dip 10:18)33. After that why does he pass on an archangel's voice pretty of God's voice? (1 Thess. 4:16)34. After that why is the in simple terms "glorify" given to him the especially given to humans? (Heb. 1:6, cf. Mt. 18:26; Rev. 3:9 - "Proskuneo")35. After that why do various who think this rely on a "few "Accurate, supposed 'proof-texts' pretty of the context of the all the same teaching of the "wonderful" Bible?36. After that how might he be COMMANDED to do anything? (John 12:49; Deut. 18:18)37. After that why did Steven see two separate out entities, GOD and Jesus, and not honestly one God or three persons? (Acts 7:55)38. After that how might he be seen at GOD's unerringly hand? (Luke 22:69; Acts 7:55; Rom. 8:34)39. After that how might Jesus be "towering" (not to become God Himself, but) to the majestic of the "unerringly hand "OF" God"? (Acts 2:33)40. After that why would he pass on to "build" a clarification from God? (Rev.1:1)41. After that why is he called God's "begotten" Son "in advance" he came to earth? (John 3:16; Gal. 4:4; 1 John 4:9)42. After that how might he pass on a "Close relative"? (John 20:17)43. After that how might he come in flesh? (1 Kings 8:27; Acts 17:24,25)44. After that why did he not come in his "own" name? (John 5:41-44)45. After that why did Jesus "come down from fantasy to do God's thrust" and not his own will? (Luke 22:42; John 6:38; John 5:30; John 8:42) 46. After that how might he echo "in advance" GOD? (Heb. 9:24) 47. After that how might he die? Can God die? Can part of God die? (Rom. 5:10; Acts 5:30; 1 Cor. 15:3; Hab.1:12; cf. 1 Tim. 6:16; Num. 23:19; Ps. 90:2; Dan. 6:25-26)48. After that why is it that "God" resurrected Jesus? (Acts 2:32)49. After that why can we see him if "no man has seen God at any time"? (John 1:18)50. After that why is donate not one free Scripture where Jesus is called "God the Son," (outfit to persons declaring "God, the Close relative)?51. How is it that the Jews brusque up some two-faced witnesses to make up lies to bring in a death result for Jesus, but neither the Jewish officials nor even one of these two-faced witnesses made a call that he was God or reciprocally God? (Matt. 26:59-67)52. John SUMMED UP HIS Unprocessed GOSPEL by saying that it was in black and white that we may think "that Jesus is the Christ, the SON "of" God." Why is donate is no introduce in that outline of the wonderful Gospel of what "would" be the record weighty thing of all - that Jesus is God? (John 20:31)53. How might Jesus teach in the Jewish SYNAGOGUES and the TEMPLE? This would never ensue if "any" of the institution aimed he claimed to be God (or that his followers aimed such a thing). - Matt. 26:55; John 7:14, 28. Matt. 4:23.54. How might Jesus' followers teach in Jewish SYNAGOGUES following Jesus' death and for the put your feet up of that initial century (at negligible)? Anew, this would not pass on been permitted if donate were "any" impression that they aimed Jesus to be God. Acts 9:20; 13:5, Acts 13:13-15.IF THE Saintly Vivacity IS ALMIGHTY GOD...1. After that why do quotes from Trinitarians give that the Saintly Vivacity is not God but if possible is a pitch from God? 2. After that why would Jews instructed in the Old Tombstone scriptures and in the teachings of John the Baptist, NOT Intensity Acquaint with In the function of THE Saintly Vivacity WAS? (Acts 19:2)3. After that why isn't the Saintly Vivacity given outfit name in the Bible?4. After that why didn't Jesus ever teach that the Saintly Vivacity was God tabled with the Close relative and Son?5. After that why does the Bible facet the Saintly Vivacity as an "it"? (Is. 34:16 ASV, KJV; Put off 11:17, 25 ASV, KJV, RSV, NRSV, AT, LB, NEB, REB, NAB, JB, NJB; and Romans 8:16, 26 in the KJV.)6. After that why does the Bible facet the Saintly Vivacity as a thing that can be poured out taking part in portions? (Acts 2:17, 18, 33; Put off 11:17, 25) 7. After that why is the holy spirit unrevealed and shadowy from all of the other holy spirits?8. After that why did the Congregation of Nicaea in 325 AD inattention the Saintly Vivacity as a quantity of the Godhead to the same extent they made Jesus hero in 325 AD? Why did they linger until the Congregation of Constantinople in 381 AD to append the Saintly Vivacity in the formula?9. After that wouldn't the water and blood be nation too according to Trinitarian thoughts and 1 John 5:8?10. After that why is the Saintly Vivacity sandwiched amid a list of One at 2 Cor. 6:6? 11. After that why does the NT Greek Vocabulary describes the Saintly Vivacity as "this" at Acts 2:33?12. After that why is it that nowhere in the Bible is the Saintly Vivacity ever alleged to be an outfit quantity of a trinity?13. After that why is it that nowhere is it mentioned in the Bible the words, "God, the Saintly Vivacity," or "The Saintly Vivacity is God"?14. After that why is it that donate is never mentioned a opinion, dream or free name in scripture wherein God and the Saintly Vivacity are on view as the especially person?IF THE TRINITY Thinking IS A BIBLE Tuition...1. After that why do Scores of encyclopedias setting that "... the view of the Trinity was of stupid and reasonably in arrears formation; that it had its Microbe IN A Sordid Fully Unfamiliar FROM THAT OF THE JEWISH AND CHRISTIAN SCRIPTURES; that it grew up, and was INGRAFTED on Christianity"? - p. 34, The "Religious of the Firstly Three Centuries", Alvan Lamson, D.D.2. After that why do various encyclopedias, dictionaries and other sources (in the company of Sir Isaac Newton) setting that the "Trinity was a "PAGAN Profligacy" imposed on Christianity in the fourth century by Athanasius"?3. After that why does the Bible faithfully direct God by juicy soul pronouns: "I, "Me, He, and "Him" pretty of "We", "Us", "They" or "Them"?4. After that why does 2 Cor. 13:14 say that the Lady Jesus Christ is one group, the Saintly Vivacity is something else group (whether a soul or a thing), and that "GOD" IS Extra Opposing INDIVIDUAL?5. After that why is donate not even one Scripture which devotedly defines the Trinity? 6. After that why is donate not even one Scripture of a opinion, dream, or Skilled name wherein God is on view as three persons?7. After that why is donate not even one Scripture where God is described using the word "three"?
